BASIC Certifications Exam Practice Questions Test Prep

[PDF and VCE] Free AXS-c01 PDF Real Exam Questions and Answers Free Download

August 29, 2022truelearn

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your AWS Certified Specialty AXS-c01 AWS Certified Alexa Skill Builder – Specialty (AXS-C01) exam. We will assist you clear the AXS-c01 exam with AWS Certified Specialty AXS-c01 exam questions. We AXS-c01 dumps are the most comprehensive ones.

Visit our site to get more AXS-c01 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/aws-certified-alexa-skill-builder-specialty.html (65 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

An Alexa Skill Builder needs to set up an Amazon Alexa skill beta test. What user identifier should be used to add beta testers?

A. AWS account number

B. Alexa user email address

C. Amazon vendor ID

D. Amazon customer ID

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/skills-beta-testing-for-alexa-skills.html

Question 2:

An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a custom skill to play a live audio stream. What two built-in intents are required to implement the AudioPlayer interface?

A. AMAZON.NextIntent and AMAZON.StopIntent

B. AMAZON.ResumeIntent and AMAZON.PauseIntent

C. AMAZON.CancelIntent and AMAZON.ResumeIntent

D. AMAZON.RepeatIntent and AMAZON.StopIntent

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://developer.amazon.com/en-US/docs/alexa/custom-skills/audioplayer-interface-reference.html

Question 3:

An Alexa Skill Builder is trying to enable a skill in the developer console. The skill model builds without errors, but the Builder is unable to turn on testing. What could be causing this?

A. The skill\’s

Latest 201 Exam 201 Dumps 100% Free Download

August 28, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your 201 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the F5-CA 201 TMOS Administration exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 201 braindumps. With We latest 201 vce, you’ll pass the F5-CA 201 TMOS Administration exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more 201 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/201.html (91 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.

A. No monitors are currently assigned to any pool, member or node.

B. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and none of the pool members passed the test.

C. The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and only some of the pool\’s

Latest 1K0-001 Exam 1K0-001 Dumps 100% Free Download

August 24, 2022truelearn

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your Polycom Certification 1K0-001 Polycom Certified Videoconferencing Engineer (PCVE) exam. We will assist you clear the 1K0-001 exam with Polycom Certification 1K0-001 exam dumps. We 1K0-001 practice tests are the most comprehensive ones.

Visit our site to get more 1K0-001 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/1K0-001.html (166 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

What is the default IP address used to connect to the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA)?

A. 192.168.1.50

B. 192.168.1.1

C. 192.168.1.254

D. 192.168.1.101

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Which of the following can only be changed using the HDX browser interface?

A. Home Screen button layout

B. Time and date

C. Audio settings

D. Camera settings

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?

A. 30,000 bits per second

B. 40,000 bits per second

C. 128,000 bits per second

D. 64,000 bits per second

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

UDP Media Channels are identified by:

A. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.

B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.

C. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.

D. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.

E. V35 Port and RS449 Port.

F. none of the above.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which of the following is the most important component of H.221 connectivity?

A. Video Intra Frames Signals and Data Collaboration Signals

B. Frame Alignment Signal and Bit Rate Allocation Signal

C. Encryption Control Signal and Video Conference Signal

D. Audio Signals and Data Collaboration Signals

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone

B. Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used

C. Distance between the video display monitor and camera

D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Which of the following describes frequency response?

A. Ability to determine frequency content of a signal

B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes

C. Ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits

D. Ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Select two reasons for Cascading the MCU.

A. Create Conferences with a number of Audio Visual Terminals that are smaller than one MCU capabilities

B. Create Conferences with a number of Audio Visual Terminals that are larger than one MCU capabilities

C. Eliminate International Calls

D. Save on Network access and connectivity expenses

E. Eliminate Network access and connectivity expenses

F. Create A Voice Activated Switching conference with a number of Audio Terminals

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which of the following are the correct descriptions of B and H0? (Select two of the following options.)

A. “B-Channel” has 64 kilobits per second of bandwidth

B. “B-Channel” has 48 kilobits per second of bandwidth

C. “B-Channel” has 128 kilo bits per second of bandwidth

D. “H0-Channel” has 1.920 million bits per second of bandwidth

E. “H0-Channel” has 1.544 million bits per second of bandwidth

F. “H0-Channel” has 384 kilobits per second of bandwidth

Correct Answer: AF

Question 11:

H.323 describes which Standards for minimum compliance operations for Visual Telephony?

A. G.711 / H.261 / H.222 / H.245

B. G.722 / H.261 / H.225 / H.245

C. G.711 / H.262 / H.225 / H.245

D. G.711 / H.261 / H.225 / H.245

E. G.711 / H.263 / H.222 / H.245

F. G.722 / H.264 / H.222 / H.245

G. G.722 / H.263 / H.222 / H.245

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

BERT testing is used for what purpose?

A. Verifying the number of Video bit errors

B. Verifying the number of the Network bit errors

C. Verifying the number of Audio bit errors

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which process?

A. Flash Link Pulse

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C. Domain Name Services

D. Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

E. Resource Reservation Protocol

F. RAS Protocol

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

A. Serious Packet Loss

B. Random Packet Discard

C. Packet Network Errors

D. Packet Delay Time End to End

E. Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

Correct Answer: E

Question 15:

What are five typical parameters required from an H.323 Terminal for successful Gatekeeper Registration?

A. H.323 End Point ISDN and SPID Numbers and ISDN Sub-Address Numbers

B. Current H.323 EndPoint TCP/IP Layer 3 address of the VTC

C. Current H.323 Layer 4 Addresses to commence signaling

D. UDP and RTP Header

E. E.164 alias

F. Address of the Gateway

G. H.323 alias

H. Address of the Gatekeeper

I. Address of the MCU

Correct Answer: BCEGH

Visit our site to get more 1K0-001 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/1K0-001.html (166 QAs Dumps)

Pass RC0-501 Exam Successfully With the Help of New RC0-501 Exam Materials

August 21, 2022truelearn

How to pass RC0-501 exam easily with less time? We provides the most valid RC0-501 vce to boost your success rate in CompTIA Security RC0-501 CompTIA Security Recertification Exam exam. If you are one of the successful candidates with We RC0-501 dumps, do not hesitate to share your reviews on our CompTIA Security materials.

Visit our site to get more RC0-501 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/rc0-501.html (349 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

A new intern in the purchasing department requires read access to shared documents. Permissions are normally controlled through a group called “Purchasing”, however, the purchasing group permissions allow write access. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A. Modify all the shared files with read only permissions for the intern.

B. Create a new group that has only read permissions for the files.

C. Remove all permissions for the shared files.

D. Add the intern to the “Purchasing” group.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

A business has recently deployed laptops to all sales employees. The laptops will be used primarily from home offices and while traveling, and a high amount of wireless mobile use is expected. To protect the laptops while connected to untrusted wireless networks, which of the following would be the BEST method for reducing the risk of having the laptops compromised?

A. MAC filtering

B. Virtualization

C. OS hardening

D. Application white-listing

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

During a data breach cleanup, it is discovered that not all of the sites involved have the necessary data wiping tools. The necessary tools are quickly distributed to the required technicians, but when should this problem BEST be revisited?

A. Reporting

B. Preparation

C. Mitigation

D. Lessons Learned

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

An attacker uses a network sniffer to capture the packets of a transaction that adds $20 to a gift card. The attacker then user a function of the sniffer to push those packets back onto the network again, adding another $20 to the gift card. This can be done many times. Which of the following describes this type of attack?

A. Integer overflow attack

B. Smurf attack

C. Replay attack

D. Buffer overflow attack

E. Cross-site scripting attack

Correct Answer: C

Question 5:

An organization is moving its human resources system to a cloud services provider. The company plans to continue using internal usernames and passwords with the service provider, but the security manager does not want the service provider to have a company of the passwords. Which of the following options meets all of these requirements?

A. Two-factor authentication

B. Account and password synchronization

C. Smartcards with PINS

D. Federated authentication

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

The data backup window has expanded into the morning hours and has begun to affect production users. The main bottleneck in the process is the time it takes to replicate the backups to separate severs at the offsite data center. Which of the following uses of deduplication could be implemented to reduce the backup window?

A. Implement deduplication at the network level between the two locations

B. Implement deduplication on the storage array to reduce the amount of drive space needed

C. Implement deduplication on the server storage to reduce the data backed up

D. Implement deduplication on both the local and remote servers

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

A penetration testing is preparing for a client engagement in which the tester must provide data that proves and validates the scanning tools\’ results. Which of the following is the best method for collecting this information?

A. Set up the scanning system\’s

Pass Guarantee 1z0-996-21 Exam By Taking New 1z0-996-21 VCE And PDF Braindumps

August 18, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your 1z0-996-21 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Industries 1z0-996-21 Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Implementation Essentials exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 1z0-996-21 vce. With We latest latest 1z0-996-21 dumps, you’ll pass the Industries 1z0-996-21 Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Implementation Essentials exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more 1z0-996-21 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/1z0-996-21.html (70 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

Critical validation rules verify the integrity of the initial measurement data (IMD). If an implementation needs to add new critical validations, where would you configure them?

A. as new lifecycle algorithms on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)

B. in the pre-processing algorithm of the IMD Seeder BO (Dl-IMDSeeder)

C. as options on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)

D. in the schema of the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)

E. in the validation algorithm on the IMD Seeder BO (D1-IMDSeeder)

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which three statements are true about usage subscriptions? (Choose three.)

A. A usage subscription can have either parent or child service points.

B. A usage subscription can be configured to include only a portion of a service point usage.

C. A usage subscription can have many service points.

D. Usage subscriptions are always related to an account.

E. A usage subscription can have only one service point.

Correct Answer: ACD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf (227)

Question 3:

On which three entities can proration be disabled? (Choose three.)

A. Calculation Rule Business Object

B. Bill Factor

C. Calculation Rule

D. Rate Version Calculation Group

E. Rate Schedule

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 4:

The base package usage transaction business object is represented by D2-UsageTransaction. The usage calculation engine or process drives the specifics of the usage to be calculated on this business object.

Based on this, which three configuration areas will have an impact on the usage calculation process? (Choose three.)

A. VEE rule

B. TOU map

C. Usage Rule

D. Factor Override

Correct Answer: BCD

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E38983_04/PDF/MDM_Configuration_Guide_v2_1_0_3.pdf

Question 5:

Which describes derived values and their relationship with Final Measurements?

A. Final Measurements can have multiple derived values, which represent other values for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

B. Derived values can have multiple Final Measurements, which represent other values for the same Initial Measurement Date/Time.

C. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents an alternative for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

D. Final Measurements can have one derived value, which represents the Initial Measurement for the same Final Measurement Date/Time.

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

What happenswhen a device\’s

312-49 the Most Up to Date VCE And PDF Instant Download

August 14, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your 312-49 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Certified Ethical Hacker 312-49 ECCouncil Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (V9) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update 312-49 pdf. With We latest 312-49 exam questions, you’ll pass the Certified Ethical Hacker 312-49 ECCouncil Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator (V9) exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more 312-49 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/312-49.html (531 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a Who is lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?

A. Title 18, Section 1030

B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)

C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90

D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

How many characters long is the fixed-length MD5 algorithm checksum of a critical system file?

A. 128

B. 64

C. 32

D. 16

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

You are working on a thesis for your doctorate degree in Computer Science. Your thesis is based on HTML, DHTML, and other web-based languages and how they have evolved over the years. You navigate to archive. org and view the HTML code of news.com. You then navigate to the current news.com website and copy over the source code. While searching through the code, you come across something abnormal: What have you found?

A. Web bug

B. CGI code

C. Trojan.downloader

D. Blind bug

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

You are working for a large clothing manufacturer as a computer forensics investigator and are called in to investigate an unusual case of an employee possibly stealing clothing designs from the company and selling them under a different brand name for a different company. What you discover during the course of the investigation is that the clothing designs are actually original products of the employee and the company has no policy against an employee selling his own designs on his own time. The only thing that you can find that the employee is doing wrong is that his clothing design incorporates the same graphic symbol as that of the company with only the wording in the graphic being different. What area of the law is the employee violating?

A. trademark law

B. copyright law

C. printright law

D. brandmark law

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?

A. NTFS

B. FAT32

C. FAT16

D. FAT12

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

When examining a file with a Hex Editor, what space does the file header occupy?

A. the last several bytes of the file

B. the first several bytes of the file

C. none, file headers are contained in the FAT

D. one byte at the beginning of the file

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited adult websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect did indeed visit these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the cookie cache. Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the investigator do to prove the violation?

A. Image the disk and try to recover deleted files

B. Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses

C. Check the Windows registry for connection data (you may or may not recover)

D. Approach the websites for evidence

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

A(n) _____________________ isone that\’s

[Latest Version] Easily Pass H13-621 Exam With Updated H13-621 Preparation Materials

August 11, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your H13-621 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the HCNP-Storage H13-621 HCNP-Storage-CUSN(Constructing Unifying Storage Network) exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update H13-621 dumps. With We latest latest H13-621 dumps, you’ll pass the HCNP-Storage H13-621 HCNP-Storage-CUSN(Constructing Unifying Storage Network) exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more H13-621 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/h13-621.html (294 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

Which of the following options does not belong to the hardware components of IP SAN?

A. Ethernet connected devices

B. iSCSI Host bus adapters

C. Storage Device

D. initi tor Starter

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

In the multipath environments of iSCSI link, for failover failures, which aspects will be usually diagnosed? (Selected 3 answers)

A. Confirm the compatibility of open-iscsi and multipath

B. Check Multipath Service started or not and Multipath module loading

C. Check Controller Status, especially Peer controller

D. Check the Parameter configuration of /etc/iscsi.conf document ConnFailTimeout=0

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 3:

Which basic functions can log analysis function of maintenance Assistant achieve? (Select 3 answers)

A. Log import

B. Log filter

C. Keyword Search

D. Informationcollection

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 4:

Synchronous remote replication connection between two storage array can use FC link or iSCSI link, and which can use the two kinds of links to connect at the same timE.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which does not belong to HostAgent component?

A. HyperManager server

B. InbandAgent

C. ConsistentAgent

D. HyperManager client

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

The source LUN of storage array remote copy is 500GB, which of the following LUN can be used as the subordinate LUN of remote copy?

A. 400G

B. 500G

C. 600G

D. 7OOG

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

To improve performance, hot zone should be distributed in traditional hard disk inside as far as possible, because access data is fast in disk insidE.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

Which are the troubleshooting steps of fault diagnosis for iSCSi host link? (Select 3 Answers)

A. check the indicator light of the host network ports, storage host port is normal or not

B. checked whether there is any quality problem of network cable (replacement method)

C. check the status of ISM interface iSCSI host port

D. check whether the host can ping storage business IP and telent port is successful or not, such as Telnet IP 362O

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 9:

Ext3 file system only support the maximum partition of size 2T.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

The LUN copy technology is on the basic of SERVER-FREE.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

If the LUN on the storage array created the virtual snapshot, under the condition of the source LUN data is deleted by mistake, what method can be used to restore data? (Select 2 Answers)

A. the snapshot of the source LUN rollback operation

B. the snapshots of the source LUN map to host, recover it on the host side

C. a snapshot of the source LUN activated operation

D. a snapshot of the source LUN mirror operation

Correct Answer: AB

Question 12:

Link bandwidth of Storage array remote replication data transmission is not adjusteD.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

The subordinate LUN\’s

Free Providing NSE6_FNC-8.5 VCE Exam Study Guides With New Update Exam Questions

August 9, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your NSE6_FNC-8.5 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the NSE 6 Network Security Specialist NSE6_FNC-8.5 Fortinet NSE 6 – FortiNAC 8.5 exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update NSE6_FNC-8.5 actual tests. With We latest NSE6_FNC-8.5 new questions, you’ll pass the NSE 6 Network Security Specialist NSE6_FNC-8.5 Fortinet NSE 6 – FortiNAC 8.5 exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more NSE6_FNC-8.5 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/nse6_fnc-8-5.html (30 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

How should you configure MAC notification traps on a supported switch?

A. Configure them only on ports set as 802.1q trunks

B. Configure them on all ports except uplink ports

C. Configure them on all ports on the switch

D. Configure them only after you configure linkup and linkdown traps

Correct Answer: B

Configure SNMP MAC Notification traps on all access ports (do not include uplinks).

Reference: https://fortinetweb.s

[Newest Version] Easily Pass A00-250 Exam with Updated Real A00-250 Exam Materials

August 8, 2022truelearn

Tens of thousands of competitors, pages of hard questions and unsatisfied exam preparation situations… Do not worried about all those annoying things! We, help you with your SAS Institute Systems Certification A00-250 SAS Platform Administration for SAS9 exam. We will assist you clear the A00-250 exam with SAS Institute Systems Certification A00-250 braindumps. We A00-250 pdf are the most comprehensive ones.

Visit our site to get more A00-250 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/A00-250.html (70 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

A platform administrator needs to delete metadata for table definitions with the following characteristics:

–

the table definitions exist in the metadata repository

–

[PDF and VCE] Latest HCE-3700 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

August 7, 2022truelearn

Attention please! Here is the shortcut to pass your HCE-3700 exam! Get yourself well prepared for the Architect-Expert HCE-3700 Hitachi Vantara Certified Expert – Performance architect exam is really a hard job. But don’t worry! We We, provides the most update HCE-3700 actual tests. With We latest HCE-3700 new questions, you’ll pass the Architect-Expert HCE-3700 Hitachi Vantara Certified Expert – Performance architect exam in an easy way

Visit our site to get more HCE-3700 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/hce-3700.html (60 QAs Dumps)
Question 1:

You are evaluating storage system performance for an interactive workload. What are three appropriate criteria in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. customer requirements

B. throughput (MBs)

C. elapsed time

D. storage system response time

E. resource utilization (% busy)

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 2:

A 10K RPM Small Form Factor 600 GB disk drive has a 3 ms average rotational latency and a 4 ms average seek time.

How many random read IOPS would you expect from a 4D 4D RAID group using these drives before any consideration for cache hits or queuing optimization benefits?

A. approximately 570 IOPS

B. approximately 1,140 IOPS

C. approximately 1,530 IOPS

D. approximately 2,280 IOPS

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

In a VSP G200 system, what are two advantages of RAID 1 0 compared to RAID 5/6 for random write workloads? (Choose two.)

A. RAID 1 0 provides more useable capacity per for the same number of drives.

B. RAID 1 0 has less processing overhead.

C. Disk virtualization is lower.

D. RAID 1 0 has more efficient pre-fetch operation.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 4:

Which three functions are performed by a VSP G1000 Virtual Storage Director (VSD)? (Choose three.)

A. It executes host I/O requests.

B. It calculates parity.

C. It manages cache segment usage.

D. It moves data to/from cache.

E. It executes software such as HDP or copy products.

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 5:

Which two statements are true about the Active Flash feature on the VSP Midrange? (Choose two.)

A. The Active Flash feature of Hitachi Dynamic Tiering monitors page access frequency in real-time, and immediately promotes pages that suddenly become busy.

B. The Active Flash feature can be enabled on any HDT pool as long as Tier 1 of the Dynamic Tiering pool is composed of SSD or FMD drives.

C. The Active Flash feature can be enabled on any HDP pool as long as the pool is comprised of SSD or FMD drives.

D. The Active Flash feature of Hitachi Dynamic Tiering monitors page access frequency in real-time, and promotes pages based on a predefined schedule.

Correct Answer: AB

References: https://knowledge.hitachivantara.com/Documents/Management_Software/SVOS/8.2/Volume_Management_-_VSP_G1x00,_F1500/Tiered_Storage/02_About_active_flash

Question 6:

Which two port options are bi-directional on a VSP G800? (Choose two.)

A. Replication-Target (RCU)

B. Open Target (TAR)

C. External Target (eLUN)

D. Mainframe (FICON)

Correct Answer: AB

References: https://knowledge.hitachivantara.com/Documents/Management_Software/Configuration_Manager_REST_API/8.5.2/REST_API/Volume_allocation

Question 7:

You are partitioning a VSP G1000 with eight VSDs and 1024 GB cache, and are creating an 80 GB CLPR.

In this scenario, how much cache does each VSD blade initially reference in the CLPR?

A. 10 GB

B. 80 GB

C. 640 GB

D. 1024 GB

Correct Answer: D

References: https://support.hitachivantara.com/download/epcra/rd80124.pdf

Question 8:

You are sizing a VSP G4000 for a customer who requires good performance but has a very limited budget. You now must select a cache size between 64 GB and 128 GB.

Which three conditions will affect your selection in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. The customer plans to use Cache Logical Partitions (CLPRs)

B. The customer environment is mainly VMware.

C. The number of LDEVs that are available.

D. The customer will use ShadowImage.

E. The number of connected hosts.

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 9:

You are designing a VSP G1000 solution for a customer and you need to determine the appropriate disk type and RAID level.

What information do you need to design the solution? (Choose three.)

A. type of workloads

B. workloads read-write ratio

C. operating systems used in the environment

D. fan-in and fan-out ratios

E. expected I/O rates

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 10:

Which two statements are true regarding HDP pools? (Choose two.)

A. Using the largest possible pools is a recommended practice.

B. Exposure to failure and recovery from failure must be considered when recommending the maximum size of a pool.

C. HDP pools can be used for sizing HDT pools.

D. Tier migration is based on performance and space capacity.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 11:

A customer has several Oracle databases with different workload profiles residing on old HUS systems. The customer wants to consolidate workloads on a new VSP G800 system to increase database performance and to reduce costs. Which configuration would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Put all of the databases in a single HDT pool.

B. Put each database in its own HDT pool.

C. Put databases with the same workload profile together in their own HDT pool.

D. Put all database tablespaces and indexes in the first HDT pool, all redo logs in the second HDT pool, and all undo logs in a third HDT pool.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Your VSP G1000 customer has an HDP pool with 600 GB drives and they need more IOPS in the pool. Which action will satisfy the requirement?

A. Spread the pool over storage tiers.

B. Add 1.2 TB drives to the pool.

C. Add more 600 Gb drives of the same type.

D. Create a new HDP pool.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Immediately after migrating to a new HDT pool, Hitachi Tuning Manager shows that Tier 1 SSD, Tier 2 SAS, and Tier 3 NL-SAS are not busy for performance but Tier 1 and Tier 2 are over utilized for capacity. From this analysis, which action should be performed?

A. Re-asses after HDT performs page migration cycles.

B. Add more drives to Tier 1.

C. Add more drives to Tier 1 and Tier 2.

D. Remove the SSD tier.

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Relocation cycles are regulatory failing to complete in an HDT implementation where the customer is also reporting lower than expected performance. What should be done in this scenario?

A. Change to Continuous mode and increase the monitor period cycle time.

B. Change to Period mode and increase the monitor period cycle time.

C. Change to Period mode and reduce the monitor period cycle time.

D. Change to High-Performance mode and reduce the monitor period cycle time.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

When testing an external LUN with default mapping on two paths, performance appears constrained and the utilization of the RAID group in the external storage system never exceeds 35% busy no matter how many test threads are generated. You want to increase the utilization of the external RAID group.

Which two actions will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the external path LUN queue depth setting.

B. Increase the number of LUNs mapped from the external RAID group.

C. Change Cache Mode to “Disabled”.

D. Increase the server HBA LUN queue depth to 64.

Correct Answer: AC

Visit our site to get more HCE-3700 Q and As:https://www.geekcert.com/hce-3700.html (60 QAs Dumps)