7 - 2022 - BASIC Certifications Exam Practice Questions Test Prep

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Question 1:

A hospital bought a Huawei OceanStor 9000V100R001C30 storage device for storing business data. According to the relevant laws and regulations, which of the following descriptions of data loss prevention is wrong?:

A. The engineer has set the WORM root directory according to the hospital\’s requirements, and all the subdirectories under this directory have the WORM attribute.

B. During the file protection period, no one can delete the protected file.

C. Protected Documents are Protected for a Period of 70 Years on Huawei OceanStor 9000 Storage Device.

D. WORM log save root, quota and WORM protection period cannot be set.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

True or False, with a client using the SMB 1.0 / 2.0 / 2.1 / 3.0 protocol to perform file replication inside a Huawei OceanStor 9000, it does not need to pass through the client, but can be done directly to the system.

A. True

B. False

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

Client 1 attempts to read file X from an OceanStor 9000, and node A responds to the read request. Which statements are true about the process of reading file x? (Choose two.)

A. If the system detects that node B has cached file X, client 1 can directly read the file from node B.

B. If the system detects that node B has cached file X, node A can directly read the file from node B.

C. After processing the file read request initiated by client 1, the system retains file X on both node A and node B.

D. If the system detects that node A has cached file X, only data of file X is cached on node A but the parity data is not cached on node A.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 4:

An Engineer installed a OceanStor 9000 for a customer (a total of 5 OceanStor 9000 C Node, front and rear ends are 10GE TOE networking, on-site installation TOE network card). Then connected the signal lines, power lines, and debugged the software. During the installation there were issues. Which of the following description of these issues are correct? (Multiple choice.)

A. 5 devices TOE NIC A0, B1, and A0, B3 inserted into the PCIe slot will not affect the system. Deployment will not affect the network bandwidth, so it cannot be adjusted.

B. The signal cables are long and need to be strapped to the cabinet or placed on the bottom tray.

C. Label NODE 01 A0-0 The signal cable is inserted in the network port A0-1. The signal cable labeled NODE01 B3-1 is inserted in the network position B3-0, due to the same network card two network port peer, you can place the wrong line, you cannot adjust.

D. CE6850 switch connected to two stacked copper cables, one of which is needed to post-cold more cold, because it does not affect the network interoperability. You can base this software debugging.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

A customer deploys a set of OceanStor V3 storage in two cities and adopts asynchronous remote replication networking between the two storage arrays. Which of the following statement is correct? (Multiple choice.)

A. The automatically created Asynchronous Remote Copy snapshot can either be a private quick pick or a public one.

B. In a DR scenario, it is recommended to create a virtual snapshot of the secondary LUN and map it to the host for access.

C. In remote replication link networking, parallel networking is better than crossover networking.

D. The number of LUNs in the consistency group should be as small as possible, and only the LUNs that have write dependencies on the same application are placed in a consistency group.

Correct Answer: CD

Question 6:

There are multiple types of disks in a hard disk domain in the OceanStor V3 storage system. If you add one SAS disk to the hard disk domain, the topology will be load balanced as which of the following?

A. Tier 0 disks perform data equalization.

B. All disks in the entire hard disk domain will participate in data equalization.

C. The CK of the target CKG will be released after data equalization is completed.

D. OCeanstor V3 enables cross-engine data equalization.

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which of the following VMWARE virtual machine scenarios can use VADP backup?

A. The storage is connected directly to the virtual machine, including RDMs, directly to iSCSI or NFS.

B. Virtual machines contain large databases.

C. The virtual machine is deployed in the AIX operating system.

D. Virtual machines contain non-Microsoft family applications.

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

What commands are used for viewing SCSI controller information on Linux systems with Qlogic HBAs?

A. lspci | grep SCSI

B. cat / proc / scsi / scsi

C. cat / proc / scsi / qla2300 / 1 | grep port

D. lspci | grep Ethernet

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 9:

Maintaining a persistent connection between host and storage, ESXi must support multipathing. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding multipathing for VMware vSphere 5.5?

A. In addition to path failover, multipathing also provides load balancing. Load balancing is the process of distributing I / O load across multiple physical paths.

B. In the event of a path failover, the virtual machine I / O delays Nintendo pump by 60s.

C. If the failover takes a long time to complete, the windows virtual machine may interrupt the I / O and eventually fail. To avoid this, set the windows virtual machine timeout to at least 30 seconds.

D. When coordinating vmware NMP and any installed third-party MPP, the PSA (Pluggable Storage Architecture) performs load and unload multipathing plug-ins and handles physical path discovery and removal.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

In a A VTL6900-I system, the backup server connected to it is the Linux operating system. The backup server and the VTL6900-I system are directly connected through the FC. The server identifies the device information as shown below.

After the backup server is configured as a backup client for the VTL6900-I system and the backup VTL system on the server virtual library process, which the following operation and description is correct:

(Multiple choice.)

A. When configuring the backup client on the VTL side, you need to know that the WWPN of the FC port that connects the VTL to the VTL is available on the server in the sys /class / fc_host directory and subdirectory to the corresponding WWPN port.

B. Server-side identification has been detected with the library device command is cat / proc / scsi / scsi.

C. As shown in the figure, among the devices identified on the server side, the device labeled 1 is the scanned library.

D. As shown in the figure, of the devices identified on the server side, the device labeled 2 is the information for the scanned tape.

Correct Answer: ABC

Question 11:

A customer needs to create an OLAP backup database for batch importing online database data at night. The database software is SQL Server 2008. The data file size is 20 TB. The storage system is OceanStor V3. The stable write throughput is required to reach 1800 MB/s. Which configuration best meets customer requirements?

A. Use 2 TB NL-SAS disks and configure RAID 6 (8D 2P).

B. Use 2 TB NL-SAS disks and configure RAID 5 (8D 1P).

C. Use 600 GB 15k rpm SAS disks and configure RAID 5 (8D 1P).

D. Use 600 GB 15k rpm SAS disks and configure RAID 10.

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which of the following is correcting regarding the read and write performance of the Huawei Oceanstor 9000 node, from highest to lowest?

A. P25 Node SSD Hard Drive> P25 Node SAS Hard Drive> P36 Node SATA Hard Drive> P12 SATA Hard Drive> C36 SATA Hard Drive

B. P25 Node SAS Hard Drive> P25 Node SSD Hard Drive> P36 Node SATA Hard Drive> P12 SATA Hard Drive> C36 SATA Hard Drive

C. P25 Node SSD Hard Drive> P25 Node SAS Hard Drive> P36 Node> C36 SATA Hard Drive> P12 SATA Hard Drive

D. P25 Node SSD Hard Drive> P25 Node SAS Hard Drive> C36 SATA Hard Drive> P36 Node SATA Hard Drive> P12 SATA Hard Drive

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which of the following information about the InfoEqualizer function of Huawei OceanStor 9000 is correct? (Multiple choice)

A. When using the InfoEqualizer function, you need to configure DNS. If you use an external DNS server, when configuring the DNS server, there is a setting of “reverse lookup zone name”, network ID setting in this tab, you need to input network ID in reverse order.

B. When there is a DNS server in the user network, the DNS server in the user network does not need to configure the forwarding record. When the user network without DNS service server, configure the InfoEqualizer DNS IP address as the DNS server\’s

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Question 1:

A customer wants users to duplicate all of their Outlook contacts into the one-X® Portal personal directory. How would you recommend the users do this?

A. Inform the customer this is not recommended.

B. Import the Outlook contacts using a .csv format.

C. Add each Outlook contact individually into the personal directory.

D. Copy and paste all contacts from Outlook in their personal directory.

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

A customer is reporting that since they last rebooted the IP Office, some of their users are not receiving calls as they did before.

Which two tools can you use to check who last made any changes to the system? (Choose two.)

A. Web-Manager

B. Monitor

C. Manager

D. System Status Application

Correct Answer: CD

References: https://downloads.avaya.com/css/P8/documents/100175142 Page: 26

Question 3:

Time profiles can be used to automate a customer out-of hours setting. It is also possible to override these times manually to either deactivate or activate the time profile.

What would you need to create to allow customer control of the time profile?

A. Directory Number

B. Hunt Group

C. Short Code

D. Time Profile

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

How can you find the IP address of an IP extension?

A. Use ARP from your PC.

B. Use the Extension Summary in SSA.

C. Look on the label on the underside of all IP Phones.

D. Use Monitor to reset the telephone, and watch it get a new DHCP address.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://community.s

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Question 1:

A storage administrator wants to provision storage from a VSP to a Windows 2008 host using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM). Which two tasks must be completed first? (Choose two.)

A. Create a host group for the host on the VSP.

B. Add the host to HDvM.

C. Add the storage system to HDvM.

D. Add the storage to a logical group in HDvM.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 2:

Which two Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) features address challenges associated with high availability and single point failures? (Choose two.)

A. HDLM provides failover protection by switching to a good path if a path fails.

B. HDLM monitors the paths of multiple hosts and redirects I/Os to the least busy path if a path fails.

C. HDLM can automatically set a failed path back online if it becomes available.

D. HDLM provides error correction algorithms that help recover data transmission errors caused by path failures.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 3:

You are installing Hitachi Device Manager and need to verify the existence of the two pre-defined user profiles. Which two are they? (Choose two.)

A. administrator

B. ha user

C. root

D. system

Correct Answer: BD

Question 4:

A storage manager needs to add a new server to the Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) database. As an alternative to running a host scan, which two actions are available to discover and identify the new server? (Choose two.)

A. Use the Host Data Collector.

B. Install HDvM Agent on the host.

C. Execute the AddNewHost CLI command.

D. Run the Import Hosts utility.

Correct Answer: AB

Question 5:

Using Hitachi Device Manager, a customer needs to see all required information on a display but the screen layout is difficult to read. They do not need to see the volume labels. What should the customer do?

A. Access More Actions and choose Hide Labels.

B. Access Column Settings and deselect Labels.

C. Edit the ShowLabels parameter in the server.properties file and restart the HiCommandServer service.

D. Ask for the user profile to be changed to disallow labels.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Your customer complains that they cannot display host information for a certain host within Hitachi Global Link Manager (HGLM). Other hosts are accessible. What should you verify?

A. the customer\’s

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Question 1:

What are two ways a container in a Pod can consume ConfigMap data? (Choose two.)

A. Mounted as a Persistent Volume Claim (PVC)

B. From Read-only files

C. From Read-write files

D. From Environment variables

E. Containers do not consume ConfigMap data

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/configuration/configmap/

Question 2:

Which VMware product provides the ability to connect and protect microservices across any runtime and any cloud?

A. Tanzu Network Profiler

B. Tanzu Observability

C. Tanzu Service Mesh

D. NSX Advanced Load Balancer

Correct Answer: C

References: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/products/vmwaretanzu-service-mesh-datasheet.pdf

Question 3:

What are three capabilities of the VMware Tanzu Portfolio? (Choose three.)

A. Unified, Global Multi-Cluster Management

B. Container Build Automation

C. Physical Infrastructure Automation

D. Integrated Developer Environment (IDE)

E. Tanzu Programming Language

F. Enterprise-Ready Kubernetes Runtime

Correct Answer: ABF

Reference: https://tanzu.vmware.com/tanzu

Question 4:

What is the relationship between Kubernetes and containers?

A. There is no relationship between Kubernetes and containers

B. Kubernetes provides a platform for managing containerized workloads

C. Kubernetes is a place where you store container images

D. Kubernetes provides a way to build containers

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.s

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Question 1:

During examination of Internet history records, the following string occurs within a Unique Resource Locator (URL):

http://www.companysite.com/products/products.asp?productid=123 or 1=1

What type of attack does this indicate?

A. Directory traversal

B. Structured Query Language (SQL) injection

C. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D. Shellcode injection

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Which type of test would an organization perform in order to locate and target exploitable defects?

A. Penetration

B. System

C. Performance

D. Vulnerability

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

What is the process of removing sensitive data from a system or storage device with the intent that the data cannot be reconstructed by any known technique?

A. Purging

B. Encryption

C. Destruction

D. Clearing

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which of the following is MOST effective in detecting information hiding in Transmission Control Protocol/internet Protocol (TCP/IP) traffic?

A. Stateful inspection firewall

B. Application-level firewall

C. Content-filtering proxy

D. Packet-filter firewall

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

The organization would like to deploy an authorization mechanism for an Information Technology (IT) infrastructure project with high employee turnover.

Which access control mechanism would be preferred?

A. Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)

C. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)

D. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

Which of the following is the MOST common method of memory protection?

A. Compartmentalization

B. Segmentation

C. Error correction

D. Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) tagging

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

An organization has outsourced its financial transaction processing to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP) who will provide them with Software as a Service (SaaS). If there was a data breach who is responsible for monetary losses?

A. The Data Protection Authority (DPA)

B. The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

C. The application developers

D. The data owner

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

In Disaster Recovery (DR) and Business Continuity (DC) training, which BEST describes a functional drill?

A. a functional evacuation of personnel

B. a specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions

C. an activation of the backup site

D. a full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions.

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Which of the following steps should be performed FIRST when purchasing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) software?

A. undergo a security assessment as part of authorization process

B. establish a risk management strategy

C. harden the hosting server, and perform hosting and application vulnerability scans

D. establish policies and procedures on system and services acquisition

Correct Answer: D

Question 10:

Which of the following is the BEST way to reduce the impact of an externally sourced flood attack?

A. Have the service provider block the soiree address.

B. Have the soiree service provider block the address.

C. Block the soiree address at the firewall.

D. Block all inbound traffic until the flood ends.

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Which of the following is a common characteristic of privacy?

A. Provision for maintaining an audit trail of access to the private data

B. Notice to the subject of the existence of a database containing relevant credit card data

C. Process for the subject to inspect and correct personal data on-site

D. Database requirements for integration of privacy data

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Which of the following methods of suppressing a fire is environmentally friendly and the MOST appropriate for a data center?

A. Inert gas fire suppression system

B. Halon gas fire suppression system

C. Dry-pipe sprinklers

D. Wet-pipe sprinklers

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

What is the most effective form of media sanitization to ensure residual data cannot be retrieved?

A. Clearing

B. Destroying

C. Purging

D. Disposal

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

Which of the following BEST describles a protection profile (PP)?

A. A document that expresses an implementation independent set of security requirements for an Information Technology (IT) product that meets specific consumer needs.

B. A document that expresses an implementation dependent set of security retirements which contains only the security functional requirements.

C. A document that represents evaluated products where there is a one-to-one correspondence between a PP and a Security Target (ST).

D. A document that is used to develop an Information Technology (IT) security product from Its security requirements definition.

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Company A is evaluating new software to replace an in-house developed application.

During the acquisition process. Company A specified the security retirement, as well as the functional requirements.

Company B responded to the acquisition request with their flagship product that runs on an Operating System (OS) that Company A has never used nor evaluated. The flagship product meets all security -and functional requirements as defined by Company A.

Based upon Company B\’s

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Question 1:

What do me improved operational efficiencies, service levels, and business flexibility provided by HPE Storage solutions create?

A. cost reduction

B. business value

C. stability to customer business

D. customer loyalty

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

When demonstrating File Persona disaster recovery between arrays, which resources go offline and must be restarted? (Select two.)

A. antivirus scanning schedules

B. file share restore process

C. shares

D. snapshots

E. exports

Correct Answer: CE

Question 3:

Which types of functionality are available in an HPE unified storage architecture? (Select two.)

A. block storage through Fibre Channel and iSCSl

B. block storage through NFS v3

C. file share through Channel and iSCSl

D. block storage through SMB v3

E. file share through NFS and CIFS

Correct Answer: AE

Question 4:

Which storage technology allows a customer to provision a group of servers with 10 TB of storage from only 5 TB of actual physical storage?

A. space reclamation

B. thin provisioning

C. thick provisioning

D. full provisioning

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Where does HPE 3PAR StoreServ Data at Rest Encryption occur?

A. ASIC

B. host

C. physical disk

D. StoreServ processor

Correct Answer: C

Question 6:

Which HPE 3PAR StoreServ feature provides non-disruptive software upgrades without relying on multi-path software?

A. HPE3PAR Access Guard

B. HPE 3PAR Dynamic Optimization

C. HPE 3PAR MPIO

D. HPE 3PAR Persistent Ports

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A company using a third party. 1 Gb iSCSI storage array is experiencing storage access performance issues. The CIO is interested in deploying HPE 3PAR StoreServ with 16 Gd/s FC to improve the performance with minimum changes to the server environment. The existing environment consists of these HPE products:

HPE C7000 BladeSystem platinum blade enclosure with HP Virtual Connect Flex-10 Interconnect modules

Combination of HPE ProLiant Gen8 and Gen9 blade servers

HPE 2920 switches

Which HPE products must be included to support a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ? (Select two.)

A. HPE 5900 CP Switch Series with 16 GD/s SFP modules

B. HPE Virtual Connect 16 Gb/s. 24-port Fibre Channel modules

C. HPE FlexFabric 20 Gb. 2-port 630FLB adapter

D. HPE 16 GD/s Fibre Channel HBA for Blade Servers

E. HPE Virtual Connect FlexFabric 10 Gb, 24-port module

Correct Answer: BD

Question 8:

When using the HPE Storage Quick ROI Calculator to prepare a business case for an HPE StoreVirtual storage solution proposal, which financial metrics can be calculated for the business case? (Select two.)

A. real options valuation

B. total economic impact

C. risk adjusted ROI

D. rapid economic justification

E. NPV savings

Correct Answer: AC

Question 9:

You are designing a solution that will have three new HPE BladeSystems and an HPE 3PAR StoreServ 8000 storage array with four controller nodes. This new environment must keep the infrastructure Within the data center to a minimum.

Which virtual connect module should you recommend to achieve this goal?

A. Flex-10/10D

B. 16 Gb 24-port Fibre Channel

C. FlexFabric-20/40 F8

D. 6125XLG

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

A customer has a Microsoft application environment that uses HPE StoreServ arrays. The customer wants to simplify the process to back up the application data and implement rapid online recovery of the applications, however, the customer cannot accomplish this from the StoreServ Management Console (SSMC).

What must be added to the solution for the customer to accomplish this? (Select two.)

A. Application Suite for Data Protection

B. Recovery Manager

C. Advanced Shadow Copy Services for Windows Servers

D. Virtual Copy

E. VSS provider for HPE 3PAR StoreServ

Correct Answer: BD

Question 11:

You are configuring a new HPE 3PAR StoreServ al-flash array for a customer. Which ratio should you expect to have the highest efficiency?

A. compaction ratio

B. reclamation ratio

C. deduplication ratio

D. read/write ratio

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

Which statement describes HPE StoreVirtual Network RAID functionality?

A. Redundancy is managed on a per-volume basis.

B. 10 2 configuration enables Network RAID.

C. Failover Manager increases the availability of the redundancy level.

D. Volumes remain available if an odd number of nodes are available.

Correct Answer: C

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