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Question 1:

What is the default IP address used to connect to the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA)?

A. 192.168.1.50

B. 192.168.1.1

C. 192.168.1.254

D. 192.168.1.101

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Which of the following can only be changed using the HDX browser interface?

A. Home Screen button layout

B. Time and date

C. Audio settings

D. Camera settings

Correct Answer: A

Question 3:

During a H.323 Videoconference, what is the correct bandwidth used by the G.711 and G.722 audio algorithms in a 256K conference call?

A. 30,000 bits per second

B. 40,000 bits per second

C. 128,000 bits per second

D. 64,000 bits per second

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

UDP Media Channels are identified by:

A. 32 bit Address or Signaling Port and ISDN Port Number.

B. 48 bit MCU Number and the 32 bit Gateway Number.

C. 32 bit Source Port Number and 32 bit Destination Port Number.

D. 16 bit Source Port Number and 16 bit Destination Port Number.

E. V35 Port and RS449 Port.

F. none of the above.

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which of the following is the most important component of H.221 connectivity?

A. Video Intra Frames Signals and Data Collaboration Signals

B. Frame Alignment Signal and Bit Rate Allocation Signal

C. Encryption Control Signal and Video Conference Signal

D. Audio Signals and Data Collaboration Signals

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Pick the best match; Audio “Critical Distance” is a definition that relates to:

A. Distance between the audio amplifier inputs and room microphone

B. Distance between the person speaking and the microphone used

C. Distance between the video display monitor and camera

D. Distance between the walls, floor to ceiling, and doorways

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

Which of the following describes frequency response?

A. Ability to determine frequency content of a signal

B. Ability of a device to respond to amplitude changes

C. Ability of a circuit to define operating frequency limits

D. Ability of a device to operate within defined frequency limits

Correct Answer: D

Question 8:

Which audio coding uses 8 Kbps?

A. G.711

B. G.722

C. G.729

D. G.728

E. G.722.1

Correct Answer: C

Question 9:

Select two reasons for Cascading the MCU.

A. Create Conferences with a number of Audio Visual Terminals that are smaller than one MCU capabilities

B. Create Conferences with a number of Audio Visual Terminals that are larger than one MCU capabilities

C. Eliminate International Calls

D. Save on Network access and connectivity expenses

E. Eliminate Network access and connectivity expenses

F. Create A Voice Activated Switching conference with a number of Audio Terminals

Correct Answer: BD

Question 10:

Which of the following are the correct descriptions of B and H0? (Select two of the following options.)

A. “B-Channel” has 64 kilobits per second of bandwidth

B. “B-Channel” has 48 kilobits per second of bandwidth

C. “B-Channel” has 128 kilo bits per second of bandwidth

D. “H0-Channel” has 1.920 million bits per second of bandwidth

E. “H0-Channel” has 1.544 million bits per second of bandwidth

F. “H0-Channel” has 384 kilobits per second of bandwidth

Correct Answer: AF

Question 11:

H.323 describes which Standards for minimum compliance operations for Visual Telephony?

A. G.711 / H.261 / H.222 / H.245

B. G.722 / H.261 / H.225 / H.245

C. G.711 / H.262 / H.225 / H.245

D. G.711 / H.261 / H.225 / H.245

E. G.711 / H.263 / H.222 / H.245

F. G.722 / H.264 / H.222 / H.245

G. G.722 / H.263 / H.222 / H.245

Correct Answer: D

Question 12:

BERT testing is used for what purpose?

A. Verifying the number of Video bit errors

B. Verifying the number of the Network bit errors

C. Verifying the number of Audio bit errors

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Ethernet is capable of automatically sensing the speed and duplicity of the LAN connection by using which process?

A. Flash Link Pulse

B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

C. Domain Name Services

D. Light-weight Directory Access Protocol

E. Resource Reservation Protocol

F. RAS Protocol

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

Which of the following best describes and defines Packet Jitter?

A. Serious Packet Loss

B. Random Packet Discard

C. Packet Network Errors

D. Packet Delay Time End to End

E. Packet Delay Time Variation from Packet to Packet

Correct Answer: E

Question 15:

What are five typical parameters required from an H.323 Terminal for successful Gatekeeper Registration?

A. H.323 End Point ISDN and SPID Numbers and ISDN Sub-Address Numbers

B. Current H.323 EndPoint TCP/IP Layer 3 address of the VTC

C. Current H.323 Layer 4 Addresses to commence signaling

D. UDP and RTP Header

E. E.164 alias

F. Address of the Gateway

G. H.323 alias

H. Address of the Gatekeeper

I. Address of the MCU

Correct Answer: BCEGH

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[PDF and VCE] Latest HCE-3700 Exam Practice Materials Free Downloading

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Question 1:

You are evaluating storage system performance for an interactive workload. What are three appropriate criteria in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. customer requirements

B. throughput (MBs)

C. elapsed time

D. storage system response time

E. resource utilization (% busy)

Correct Answer: BCD

Question 2:

A 10K RPM Small Form Factor 600 GB disk drive has a 3 ms average rotational latency and a 4 ms average seek time.

How many random read IOPS would you expect from a 4D 4D RAID group using these drives before any consideration for cache hits or queuing optimization benefits?

A. approximately 570 IOPS

B. approximately 1,140 IOPS

C. approximately 1,530 IOPS

D. approximately 2,280 IOPS

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

In a VSP G200 system, what are two advantages of RAID 1 0 compared to RAID 5/6 for random write workloads? (Choose two.)

A. RAID 1 0 provides more useable capacity per for the same number of drives.

B. RAID 1 0 has less processing overhead.

C. Disk virtualization is lower.

D. RAID 1 0 has more efficient pre-fetch operation.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 4:

Which three functions are performed by a VSP G1000 Virtual Storage Director (VSD)? (Choose three.)

A. It executes host I/O requests.

B. It calculates parity.

C. It manages cache segment usage.

D. It moves data to/from cache.

E. It executes software such as HDP or copy products.

Correct Answer: ACD

Question 5:

Which two statements are true about the Active Flash feature on the VSP Midrange? (Choose two.)

A. The Active Flash feature of Hitachi Dynamic Tiering monitors page access frequency in real-time, and immediately promotes pages that suddenly become busy.

B. The Active Flash feature can be enabled on any HDT pool as long as Tier 1 of the Dynamic Tiering pool is composed of SSD or FMD drives.

C. The Active Flash feature can be enabled on any HDP pool as long as the pool is comprised of SSD or FMD drives.

D. The Active Flash feature of Hitachi Dynamic Tiering monitors page access frequency in real-time, and promotes pages based on a predefined schedule.

Correct Answer: AB

References: https://knowledge.hitachivantara.com/Documents/Management_Software/SVOS/8.2/Volume_Management_-_VSP_G1x00,_F1500/Tiered_Storage/02_About_active_flash

Question 6:

Which two port options are bi-directional on a VSP G800? (Choose two.)

A. Replication-Target (RCU)

B. Open Target (TAR)

C. External Target (eLUN)

D. Mainframe (FICON)

Correct Answer: AB

References: https://knowledge.hitachivantara.com/Documents/Management_Software/Configuration_Manager_REST_API/8.5.2/REST_API/Volume_allocation

Question 7:

You are partitioning a VSP G1000 with eight VSDs and 1024 GB cache, and are creating an 80 GB CLPR.

In this scenario, how much cache does each VSD blade initially reference in the CLPR?

A. 10 GB

B. 80 GB

C. 640 GB

D. 1024 GB

Correct Answer: D

References: https://support.hitachivantara.com/download/epcra/rd80124.pdf

Question 8:

You are sizing a VSP G4000 for a customer who requires good performance but has a very limited budget. You now must select a cache size between 64 GB and 128 GB.

Which three conditions will affect your selection in this situation? (Choose three.)

A. The customer plans to use Cache Logical Partitions (CLPRs)

B. The customer environment is mainly VMware.

C. The number of LDEVs that are available.

D. The customer will use ShadowImage.

E. The number of connected hosts.

Correct Answer: ACE

Question 9:

You are designing a VSP G1000 solution for a customer and you need to determine the appropriate disk type and RAID level.

What information do you need to design the solution? (Choose three.)

A. type of workloads

B. workloads read-write ratio

C. operating systems used in the environment

D. fan-in and fan-out ratios

E. expected I/O rates

Correct Answer: ABE

Question 10:

Which two statements are true regarding HDP pools? (Choose two.)

A. Using the largest possible pools is a recommended practice.

B. Exposure to failure and recovery from failure must be considered when recommending the maximum size of a pool.

C. HDP pools can be used for sizing HDT pools.

D. Tier migration is based on performance and space capacity.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 11:

A customer has several Oracle databases with different workload profiles residing on old HUS systems. The customer wants to consolidate workloads on a new VSP G800 system to increase database performance and to reduce costs. Which configuration would you use to accomplish this task?

A. Put all of the databases in a single HDT pool.

B. Put each database in its own HDT pool.

C. Put databases with the same workload profile together in their own HDT pool.

D. Put all database tablespaces and indexes in the first HDT pool, all redo logs in the second HDT pool, and all undo logs in a third HDT pool.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Your VSP G1000 customer has an HDP pool with 600 GB drives and they need more IOPS in the pool. Which action will satisfy the requirement?

A. Spread the pool over storage tiers.

B. Add 1.2 TB drives to the pool.

C. Add more 600 Gb drives of the same type.

D. Create a new HDP pool.

Correct Answer: A

Question 13:

Immediately after migrating to a new HDT pool, Hitachi Tuning Manager shows that Tier 1 SSD, Tier 2 SAS, and Tier 3 NL-SAS are not busy for performance but Tier 1 and Tier 2 are over utilized for capacity. From this analysis, which action should be performed?

A. Re-asses after HDT performs page migration cycles.

B. Add more drives to Tier 1.

C. Add more drives to Tier 1 and Tier 2.

D. Remove the SSD tier.

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Relocation cycles are regulatory failing to complete in an HDT implementation where the customer is also reporting lower than expected performance. What should be done in this scenario?

A. Change to Continuous mode and increase the monitor period cycle time.

B. Change to Period mode and increase the monitor period cycle time.

C. Change to Period mode and reduce the monitor period cycle time.

D. Change to High-Performance mode and reduce the monitor period cycle time.

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

When testing an external LUN with default mapping on two paths, performance appears constrained and the utilization of the RAID group in the external storage system never exceeds 35% busy no matter how many test threads are generated. You want to increase the utilization of the external RAID group.

Which two actions will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Increase the external path LUN queue depth setting.

B. Increase the number of LUNs mapped from the external RAID group.

C. Change Cache Mode to “Disabled”.

D. Increase the server HBA LUN queue depth to 64.

Correct Answer: AC

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